Talk:Magic penetration/@comment-143.115.159.53-20110103190417

This is very unclear. Here are some questions:

1) How come the denominator isn't adjusted for Magic Pen in the formula above? I.e. the denominator remains (300 + 100) despite the 20 Magic Pen.

2) Does % Magic Pen really reduce the % Magic Reduction as the first formula above shows?

3) There is inconsistency here. In the example with 40 | 40% this article suggests MR is lowered to 36 (which would be 36/136 or 26.5% reduction) but the first formula (section 1) suggests the magic reduction would be (100-40)/200 - 0.4 = -10% .. ??

We need citations